Is the declaration of a man between himself and Allah that he is a Muslim sufficient for him to marry a Muslim woman, given his ignorance of the differences between the People of the Sunnah and the People of Innovation? And is one who attends their wedding, which is free of unlawful things, sinful? And what is the advice for the wife’s aunt who backbites her and claims that her husband is not a Muslim?
The determining factor is the man's state at the time of his marriage. If he pronounces the two testimonies of faith (Shahadatayn), adheres to the outward rituals of Islam, and does not commit any of the nullifiers of Islam, then he is treated as a Muslim, and his marriage to a Muslim woman is valid. It is not a condition for his Islam to have it witnessed or documented in writing. If the marriage fulfills the conditions of validity, such as the guardian's permission and the presence of witnesses, then it is a valid marriage, and those present do not incur sin merely by their presence. It is not permissible for the woman's aunt to spread rumors about the invalidity of the man's Islam unless she has clear proof, based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "Any man who calls his brother a disbeliever, then it will return upon one of them; if it is as he said, then good, otherwise it returns to him." The disbelief or immorality of the suitor's parents does not harm him if he is a man of religion and good character, based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "If there comes to you one whose religion and character you approve, then marry [your daughter] to him."
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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