Why did jurists not permit women to seek divorce in cases of polygamy? And why did the Prophet (peace be upon him) openly declare his love for Aisha, despite the sorrow this might cause his other wives, especially since the noble verse, "And you will never be able to be entirely just between wives, even if you desired it," indicates man's inability to achieve perfect justice in love among his wives?

Allah the Almighty has made it obligatory to be just between wives in terms of overnight stays, financial support, and housing. He commanded those who fear not being able to be just to limit themselves to one wife. As for His saying, "And you will never be able to be fair and just between women even if you desire to do so; so do not incline completely (to one) and leave her (the other) hanging," scholars have interpreted this as referring to the inclination of the heart, which a person does not control, and not to fulfilling legal rights. This is supported by the saying of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him: "O Allah, this is my division in what I possess, so do not blame me for what You possess and I do not possess." Therefore, an inclination of the heart alone does not entail accountability.