Is the wife considered divorced if her husband said to her, during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her: "You are not my wife if you curse me," and then the wife slept and woke up and cursed him while he was asleep without hearing her?
If it is confirmed that the wife verbally abused her husband, her conditional divorce, contingent on the abuse, takes effect. The husband's statement, "You are not my wife," is an implicit divorce (kinayah talaq) that does not take effect unless intended. The husband not hearing the abuse does not prevent the divorce from taking effect. Divorcing the wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her is an innovation (bid'ah), but it is effective according to the preponderant opinion. Marital problems should be avoided and addressed with deliberation when they occur. The wife's verbal abuse of her husband contradicts good companionship and the husband's guardianship.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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