Is a divorce effective when one says "divorced" to oneself aloud with the intention of stopping a problem with one's wife, without intending to enact a divorce or direct the word to her, and before consummation?

If you utter the word "Taliq" (divorced) without attributing it to your wife, and you do not intend by it to divorce her, then no divorce occurs. However, if you do intend divorce by it, then it occurs; because this word is an implicit expression (kinayah) which requires intention for divorce to take place through it.