Does a divorce take place by saying "Taliq" – without the phrase "You are divorced" – with the intention of responding to the wife's request, "Divorce me," knowing that the speaker did not realize the word had left his tongue until it already had?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A woman's request for divorce without a valid reason is forbidden, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Any woman who asks her husband for divorce without a sound reason, the fragrance of Paradise will be forbidden to her." If the husband utters the word "taliq" (divorced) with the intention of uttering it, then the divorce is effective and explicit, and it does not require an intention for it to occur. However, if the word slips from his tongue without the intention of uttering it, then, according to the majority of scholars, the divorce does not take effect.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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