What is the ruling on money received by an individual from two salaries, one from the workforce without actually performing work, and the other from a university teaching contract that he has not commenced, while concealing the fact that he is receiving the first salary?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The special employee, like a salaried worker, is entitled to wages by making himself available for work during the period, even if he does not actually perform work. However, if the non-engagement in the second job is due to proximity to the manager, then this is impermissible, and you are not entitled to a salary for it. It is also not permissible to conceal the matter of the first job if it was a stipulated condition.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 128799
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