Does divorce occur if the husband utters the words aloud to himself without intending for it to take effect?
Divorce occurs with an explicit utterance, even without the intention (niyyah), and it occurs with an ambiguous utterance (kinayah) when accompanied by the intention of divorce, where the utterance could mean divorce or something else. Divorce does not occur with a command form, such as "divorce her," if a man addresses himself with it. If a person is afflicted with obsessive-compulsive disorder (waswasah) and is overcome by it, causing him to utter words of divorce, then his divorce does not occur. The person afflicted with waswasah must strive against himself and turn away from these obsessive thoughts.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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