Does divorce occur if the husband utters the words "You are divorced" audibly to himself, when he is absent from his wife, without intending divorce, and out of ignorance of its occurrence?

The majority of scholars hold that a divorce pronounced with an explicit utterance does not require intention for its occurrence, and ignorance of its ruling is not an excuse. Some scholars are of the opinion that the husband's statement, "You are divorced," in the wife's absence falls under metaphorical expressions, and thus, from a religious perspective, it does not take effect unless he intended divorce. The questioner is advised to present his case to trustworthy scholars in his country.