Back to search
The question

Do the four consecutive divorces in a single utterance count as one divorce or three divorces?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband repeats the word of divorce, its number depends on his intention. If he intended to issue three divorces, the wife becomes unlawful to him according to the majority of scholars, and she does not become lawful for him until she marries another husband. If he intended affirmation or had no intention, one divorce is binding. If he had no intention, one divorce is binding because there is no particle that necessitates a difference. Based on this, if he intended one divorce or had no intention, one divorce is binding upon him, and he may take his wife back before her 'iddah (waiting period) is complete. If he intended three divorces or more, her return is not valid. Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah said that one divorce is binding upon him in all cases, and he may take her back before her 'iddah is complete, even if he intended three divorces.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
119639
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy