What is the legal ruling regarding the counting of the divorce pronouncement in which the husband said to his wife: "I have divorced you twice," and are these two pronouncements indeed counted as two divorces, so that the wife's visit to her mother constitutes the third divorce?
It appears from the question that the husband conditioned his wife’s divorce on her hitting their daughter, and that indeed happened. Then, the husband uttered the words: "I have divorced you twice."
If the husband intended two divorces to occur upon the hitting, or if he intended one divorce and added another to it, then two divorces have occurred. However, if he intended only one divorce and falsely claimed two, then only one divorce is binding, religiously speaking (diyanatan).
The last divorce, which he conditioned on his wife staying at her mother's house, also occurred, as she did so.
If three divorces have occurred, the wife becomes unlawful to her husband, and she is not required to seek khul' (divorce at the wife's instance). She does not become lawful to him again until she marries another husband in a valid marriage and he then divorces her after consummation.
If only two divorces have occurred, the husband has the right to take back his wife before the expiration of her waiting period (iddah), which is her purification from the third menstrual cycle, or three months for a woman who does not menstruate. She does not have the right to refuse. If she is harmed by living with him, she should refer her case to a Sharia judge.
If the iddah expires, she becomes irrevocably separated from him, and the marriage contract must be renewed with all its pillars (wali - guardian, two just witnesses, mahr - dowry). The wife has the right to refuse to renew the contract.
It is advisable to consult a Sharia court or ask knowledgeable scholars to ascertain the husband's intention.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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