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The question

Does a divorce issued by a husband in a state of anger count, knowing that it is the third divorce, and that the husband had intercourse with his wife during a period of purity, and that the husband does not pray?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Anger does not prevent the occurrence of divorce unless the person reaches a state of losing consciousness and discernment, or if anger overwhelms him to the extent that he is compelled to utter it.

Issuing a divorce during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred is a violation of the Sunnah. Scholars have differed regarding its validity. The majority of scholars hold that it is valid, while a group of scholars, such as Ibn Taymiyyah, disagreed and held that it is not valid. According to the majority opinion, if the anger does not reach the extent that prevents the occurrence of divorce, then the wife becomes unlawful to her husband and is not permissible for him until she marries another husband in a marriage of desire and he consummates the marriage. Then, if he divorces her, it becomes permissible for her to return to her first husband.

It is advisable to present the matter to Sharia courts or to trustworthy scholars.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
104937
Imported
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