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The question

Is a divorce, where a Muslim woman divorces herself in Europe, considered a religiously valid divorce, and what is the ruling concerning her second marriage if her first husband did not divorce her according to Islamic law?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is not permissible for a Muslim to resort to laws other than Islamic for rulings on marriage and divorce. If the spouses are compelled to go to court and a Sharia court is unavailable, they should refer their case to a reliable Islamic scholar or institution. If there are proven valid reasons for divorce, the institution will rule accordingly, and the husband must comply. If the husband does not accept and the harm to the wife persists, she may refer back to the aforementioned institution. If the institution advises her to take the matter to civil courts to remove the harm, she may do so, as this falls under compelling the husband to fulfill his Islamic obligations. Both spouses must fear Allah. Any divorce issued by civil courts in a manner other than what has been mentioned is not permissible under Sharia, and if the woman marries based on it, she has committed adultery. In this case, the husband must inform her family and try to save her; otherwise, he should divorce her.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
33565
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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