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The question

Does a man's divorce of his wife take effect if he says "She is divorced, divorced, divorced" and "She is divorced" while in a state of extreme anger, knowing that he has not consummated the marriage with her (he has not had intercourse with her), but he has been alone with her?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband utters a divorce while in a state of extreme anger that deprives him of awareness, then the divorce does not take effect. If the anger is severe but without loss of awareness, then there is a difference of opinion among scholars regarding it. In the event that a divorce occurs, scholars have differed on whether seclusion with the betrothed (al-makhtuuba) is considered equivalent to consummation (ad-dukhool). The majority of scholars hold that it is like consummation, and thus the 'iddah (waiting period) becomes incumbent, and the husband may revoke the divorce as long as she is within her 'iddah and he has not divorced her three times. Some scholars, however, are of the opinion that seclusion is not like consummation, and consequently, the wife becomes irrevocably divorced (baa'in) and is not permissible for him except with a new marriage contract. Since this matter is subject to scholarly disagreement, it should be decided by a Sharia judge or trusted scholars in the country.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
107646
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