How can one respond to someone who argues that what Allah willed to be forbidden or obligatory is explicitly stipulated in an unequivocal text, and that what is mentioned in a text open to two or more interpretations falls under the category of providing latitude for people, applying this to the ruling on music, and reasoning that the disagreement over the details of acts of worship such as prayer, zakat, fasting, and Hajj is evidence of this latitude?

Singing accompanied by musical instruments is forbidden, both for men and women, whether it is romantic, enthusiastic, or religious. The only exceptions are the duff (tambourine) at weddings, on Eid, and upon the return of a traveler.

As for singing without musical accompaniment: if a woman sings to men, it is forbidden. If a man sings with permissible words, it is allowed, like Islamic anashid (chants/songs) that are free of music, though one should not listen to them excessively.

The scholars have reached a consensus on the prohibition of listening to music, citing as evidence the hadith of Abu Malik al-Ash'ari, which mentions that among his nation there will be those who will consider ma'azif (musical instruments) lawful. Also cited is the hadith of Anas ibn Malik concerning "two cursed sounds in this world and the hereafter: a mizmar (wind instrument) at a time of joy, and wailing at a time of misfortune," and the hadith of Abdullah ibn Amr, in which the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, forbade the kuba (drum).

If singing is free of musical instruments, uses permissible words, and is not a woman singing to men, then there is no harm in it.