Does separation occur by the explicit utterance of divorce, such as the husband saying: "Divorce" (الطلاق) or "A divorce" (طلاق), or does it necessitate derivatives of the word?

Divorce does not occur merely by the husband uttering the word "divorce" (الطلاق) or "divorced" (طالق) if it is not attributed to the wife, unless he intended for it to be a divorce for her. For an explicit divorce to occur, its wording must be attributed to the wife, such as him saying, "My wife is divorced," or "You are divorced," or "I divorce you," or "The mother of my children is divorced" if he has no children from anyone else. As for merely uttering the word "divorced" without attribution, no divorce occurs by it.