Does the aforementioned transaction involve usury (riba), knowing that a sum of money will be paid in exchange for its return after one year, along with the renewal of the contract and receipt of the rental amount, and that in the event of non-payment, ownership will transfer or renewal will occur?

If the question is about lending a person money in exchange for a mortgage on a property he owns, and taking rent for the property in return for the loan, this is usury and is impermissible. The jurisprudential rule is that it is not permissible for the lender to benefit from the borrower, and every loan that draws a benefit is usury. It is not permissible to benefit from a mortgage if it is in exchange for a loan, even if its owner permits it.