Is the wife considered sinful if she abstains from conjugal relations with her husband during the first three months of pregnancy, based on doctors' advice regarding the necessity of abstaining for fear for the fetus due to uterine weakness, despite the husband's anger?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A wife's obedience to her husband is one of the greatest obligations, especially regarding enjoyment, unless she has an excuse. If trustworthy doctors state that intercourse will lead to a miscarriage, then this is an excuse that permits her to abstain. If the husband cannot be patient, he may marry another or enjoy his wife without intercourse. It must be noted that a woman is not permitted to go to a doctor except out of necessity.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 97819
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