Does divorce occur with the husband's statement "You are not divorced" in the context of denying his intention to divorce, and is his statement considered a repetition of what the wife said, or does it not occur because it was preceded by a negation?

If the words uttered by the husband during a quarrel were allusions to divorce (kinayat al-talaq (definition)) and he did not intend divorce by them, then the divorce is not effective. This is because allusive phrases (alfazh al-kinayah) do not effect divorce unless accompanied by intention. The husband's statement, "My intention was not for you to be divorced," does not affect the marital bond.