Does an explicit pronouncement of divorce, without intention, constitute a divorce? Is a man’s word, spoken without purpose or intention, grounds for the demolition of his marital life? Are people in the questioner’s country excused for their ignorance regarding the occurrence of divorce outside the Sharia court?

There is no contradiction between the pronouncement of divorce with explicit wording without intention, and what Sheikh al-Islam mentioned that every utterance made unintentionally due to oversight or a slip of the tongue does not entail a ruling. The first refers to someone who intentionally utters the word of divorce even if he does not intend its effect, while the second relates to someone whose tongue slipped with the word without intention, like someone who intended to say "Tariq" but said "Taliq." When the husband pronounces divorce, it takes effect, and the judge's role is merely documentation. The ignorance of some people regarding this does not prevent the divorce from taking effect, as long as they realize that what they uttered is among the divorce pronouncements.