Do these three divorces count: the first, which was issued without intent under the influence of my wife's provocation and her saying: "Be a man and divorce me"? And the second, which was intended as a threat when I said to my wife: "If you do it, you will be divorced," and she did it? And the third, which was also intended as a threat when I said to my wife: "If you do not travel within a week, you will be divorced," and she did not travel, then we traveled together before the end of the week?
The situations in which the word "divorce" (talaq) was mentioned as three are:
1. If you utter the divorce intentionally and consciously, the divorce takes effect. However, if it slips from your tongue unintentionally or you are not conscious, it does not take effect.
2. Your saying to your wife, "If you do this, you will be divorced," is considered a conditional divorce. So, if she does what you conditioned it upon, the divorce takes effect according to the majority of scholars, and the intention of threat is not considered. Ibn Taymiyyah holds that an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yamin) is due if the husband did not intend divorce.
3. Your saying, "If you do not travel within a week, you will be divorced"; you do not break your oath as long as you traveled with her within the week, and you had no intention contrary to the apparent meaning of your words.
It is advisable to consult scholars directly or refer to the Sharia court, and to beware of making divorce a means to solve marital problems, as there are gradual lawful means for that.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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