Is the marriage contract considered religiously valid if the wife did not approve of the groom at the moment of the contract, but then approved of him and became convinced by him afterward, knowing that he had not consummated the marriage with her?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a woman gives her consent to marriage while being averse to it, the marriage contract is valid. However, if she is forced into marriage against her will or without her permission, then: if she is someone for whom marriage without her permission is permissible, the contract is valid. But if she is someone for whom marriage without her consent is not permissible, there is a difference of opinion regarding the validity of the contract. Some scholars, like Ahmad and Al-Shafi'i, hold that it is void, while others are of the view that its validity is contingent upon her subsequent approval.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/120000
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 120000
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy