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The question

Is a wife forbidden to her husband if he said to her: "If there is any contact between me and any non-mahram male, in any way whatsoever, then I am forbidden to him," and then such contact occurred due to circumstances of life?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is not permissible for a husband to harbor ill suspicions about his wife without genuine cause, as the default state for Muslims is integrity. It is advisable for the husband to diligently instruct his wife in matters of her religion and to be a good role model for her. As for a husband's prohibition of his wife contingent on her communication with a foreign man, if the condition upon which the prohibition was made occurs, then its effect will follow. The preponderant opinion is that a husband's prohibition of his wife depends on his intention; whatever he intended, be it ẓihār, divorce, or an oath, will take effect. The husband's intention is considered in determining what he meant by "communication"; he might have intended to prevent her from unlawful communication, not all communication. If the reason (for the prohibition) ceases, he will not have broken his oath.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
125857
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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