Could the differences in Qur'anic readings – such as the reading of "ولا يخاف عقباها" (and he fears not its consequence) and "فلا يخاف عقباها" (so he fears not its consequence) in Surat Ash-Shams, and the omission or affirmation of the pronoun "هو" (he/it) in Surat Al-Hadid – be interpreted as being due to facilitating matters for tribes with different dialects, especially given that some of these differences cannot be accommodated by a single written copy of the Mushaf, and that the Uthmanic copies of the Mushaf varied in the counting of verses and the orthography of words?
The Holy Quran is one and the same; Muslims do not differ concerning it. Allah has undertaken to preserve it from any alteration or distortion. There is no disagreement among Muslims that whoever denies a single letter of it is a disbeliever. The verse, "Indeed, it is We who sent down the Dhikr (the Quran), and indeed, We will be its guardian," encompasses both the general and literal preservation of the Quran. Facilitating the recitation of the Quran includes the different pronunciations of letters (Farsh al-Huruf) and linguistic origins (Usul), which allowed it to be recited in the various dialects of the Arab tribes. The wisdom behind the different letters and recitations is not limited to facilitation alone; rather, it also includes the clarification of rulings, the collection of different rulings, the dispelling of illusions, the clarification of obscure wording, and the elucidation of doctrines.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/151957
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 151957
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy