What is the ruling regarding the marriage of a man who told people he divorced his wife, while the wife says, "We separated and have no intention of reconciling, and we haven't met for three months," and she did not hear him utter a word that necessitates divorce? And is there an 'iddah period for a woman if she is compelled to go out for her needs?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The wife's statement, "We have separated, and we do not intend to reconcile," does not constitute a divorce. A husband informing others that he has divorced his wife does not religiously effect a divorce if he is lying. If the husband admits to lying, then no divorce has occurred. However, if he admits to divorcing her, then the divorce has taken place, and she must observe the 'iddah (waiting period) from the moment he uttered the divorce. A woman observing 'iddah is permitted to go out during the day for a necessity.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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