Does a man marrying another woman constitute a violation of a verbal agreement not to marry another, thereby permitting the wife to seek divorce? And by doing so, would she fall under the Hadith: "Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without any strong reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her"?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The conditions considered valid in marriage are those stipulated in the contract or prior to it. If a woman stipulates to the suitor that he must not marry another woman, he is obligated to fulfill this condition, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Muslims are bound by their conditions, except for a condition that forbids what is lawful or permits what is unlawful." If the husband does not fulfill the condition, the wife has the right to annul the marriage.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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