Does the verse, "marry such women as seem good to you, two, three, or four" in Surat An-Nisa permit a man to marry a female employee without her guardian's permission or her rights, and did the Prophet marry Maria the Copt without a marriage contract, and does that mean that Islam does not equate a free woman with an enslaved woman?

Christians cast doubts on Muslims regarding their religion, but their arguments are weak. Marrying more than one wife is permissible and has benefits for society. A man's enjoyment of what he owns from slave-women is permissible and was well-known before Islam. Abraham, David, and Solomon, peace be upon them, owned slave-women. There is a difference between a hired woman and a slave-woman. The guardian of a slave-woman is her master, and fairness is not obligatory between her and free wives. Mariya al-Qibtiyya was a slave-woman to the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him. A slave-woman is not a hired woman; rather, she is the property of her master. If she gives birth to his child, she becomes an "umm walad" (mother of a child) and gains her freedom after his death. As for a hired woman, it is not permissible to marry her except with the permission of her guardian, and it is not permissible to enjoy her without marriage. If a man marries a slave-woman owned by another person, then fairness is obligatory between her and his other wives.