Is it true that the divorce of one afflicted by obsessive thoughts, who has not disclosed his divorce to anyone, does not take effect, and did Ibn Taymiyyah or other scholars state this?

In summary, the divorce of a person suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder (waswasah) does not take effect unless he pronounced the divorce definitively, being aware and having made a conscious choice. If he uttered it while overwhelmed in his mind, his divorce does not take effect. No attention should be paid to doubt, because the original state is the continuation of the marriage.