What is the ruling regarding a husband who swore by divorce that he would not speak kindly to his wife for five days, and then spoke to her mockingly and with ugliness during that period?

I committed some Sharia violations, including: swearing an oath to commit a sin (harming the wife), and ridiculing and demeaning her. As for the ruling on the oath: If the period of the oath has ended and you have not broken it, then there is nothing upon you in terms of the oath itself. However, repentance, seeking forgiveness, and seeking absolution from your wife are obligatory. If you did break it, the prevailing opinion is that an oath by divorce has the ruling of a conditional divorce, meaning it occurs when the condition it was made dependent upon occurs. Some scholars said that whoever swears by divorce is obligated to pay the expiation for an oath if his intention was to encourage or prevent something. However, if his intention was to cause the divorce to occur, then it occurs.