What is the ruling if a husband says to his wife: "If you bring up this subject again, you are divorced, divorced, divorced," intending thereby to threaten and prevent her, and later says that he did not intend divorce; is this considered an explicit divorce or a conditional divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The majority of scholars hold that a conditional divorce takes effect if the condition upon which it is based is met, in contrast to Ibn Taymiyyah, who does not consider it to take effect if the intention behind it was to threaten or prevent something. Our follows the opinion of the majority. However, there is no sin upon one who acts according to Ibn Taymiyyah's opinion if their heart is at peace with that. It is preferable to present these matters to a court.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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