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The question

Is the wife considered to be irrevocably divorced after the verbal divorce formula has been repeated and a court has been approached with the intention of an irrevocable divorce, or is she still considered to have been divorced twice with the possibility of reconciliation? What is the Shariah ruling on the relationship between the spouses during this period?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband tells his wife, "You are divorced thrice," then three divorces occur according to the majority of scholars, and this is the most preponderant opinion. Consequently, his wife becomes unlawful for him until she marries another man in a valid marriage and then he divorces her after consummation. Any subsequent pronouncement of divorce by him is null and void. The documentation of the divorce or the presence of the wife is not a condition for its occurrence; rather, it takes place simply by the husband uttering the clear words with the intention of effecting it. Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah held the view that a triple divorce pronounced in a single utterance counts as one divorce, and that divorce does not occur during menstruation, post-partum bleeding (nifas), or a period of purity during which intercourse has taken place. However, the most preponderant and acted-upon opinion is that of the majority of scholars. If the conditions are met for each of the three pronouncements of divorce, then the wife becomes irrevocably divorced (baynunah kubra). It is advisable to consult a Sharia court or seek the advice of scholars to review the specifics of the case.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy