Does divorce occur in any of the three aforementioned cases: the husband's saying "I divorce her" or "I'll end the matter" with the intention of explaining, or his uttering the words "you are divorced" during practice, or his saying "divorce has occurred" unintentionally after speaking with the Sheikh?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not take place in the first two cases. The first is merely a promise of divorce, and the second is a narration of divorce, not an actual divorce. As for the third case, if the husband intended to effect a divorce by saying "the husband uttered without intention," then it takes place. However, if he meant that the divorce had already occurred based on the mufti's fatwa, then it does not take place.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- Original fatwa ID
- 95706
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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