Is a wife obligated to obey her husband within the bounds of Islamic law—regarding household care and acceding to his request for intimacy—knowing that he does not pray, does not pay zakat, has committed adultery, and drinks alcohol? And is she considered sinful, and will the angels curse her, if she does not obey him? And does the facilitation of her marriage after performing Salatul-Istikhara mean that she did not understand its true meaning?

It is obligatory for the wife to obey her husband as long as he does not command her to commit a sin. If his disobedience is by abandoning prayer, then the matter is serious. Scholars have agreed on the disbelief of one who abandons prayer out of denial. They differed regarding one who abandons it out of laziness. Abu Hanifah held that such a person does not disbelieve and is imprisoned until he prays. Malik and Al-Shafi'i held that such a person does not disbelieve but is killed as a legal punishment if he does not pray. The well-known position in the Hanbali school of thought is that such a person disbelieves and is killed as an apostate. This is what has been narrated from the Companions, and Ishaq narrated a consensus on it. They cited as evidence the hadith: "The covenant between us and them is prayer; whoever abandons it has disbelieved." If the husband insists on abandoning prayer, she should refer her matter to her guardian or to the Sharia courts. As for the Istikhara prayer, Allah knows best what is in her best interest, and His decree is always good.