Back to search
The question

Is zakat obligatory for the past two years on an amount of money that was in another person's possession?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

In zakat, the consideration is based on the ownership of the wealth, not its mere possession. If the sales contract with your brother-in-law was concluded and the amount paid became his property as part of the price, then the zakat is due from him. However, if the amount was merely a promise to sell or an advance for it, then it is a debt owed by him, and in this case, the zakat becomes obligatory upon you, either by paying it along with your wealth's zakat when the year (hawl) is complete, or by paying it for past years when you recover the amount.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
195296
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy