What is the ruling on my saying: "The man recited such-and-such a verse" or "He recited the words of Allah," meaning that he recited or read it? And is this considered disbelief (kufr)?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
There is no disbelief or apostasy in what the questioner said, and his mention that this word implies disbelief is incorrect. He should abandon these whisperings, as they contain evil.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/128466
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 128466
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy