Back to search
The question

Is anything incurred — such as an expiation for breaking an oath — upon a wife who swore an oath not to allow her husband to have intercourse with her for a month, and then he had intercourse with her the following day?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is obligatory for the wife to obey her husband in what is right and to enable him to enjoy her, so whoever refuses will be cursed by the angels until morning. The husband must help his wife obey him, and he has rights toward her just as she has rights toward him. A wife who has sworn not to approach her husband must offer an expiation for her oath: feeding ten poor persons or clothing them, or freeing a slave. If she is unable to do so, then fasting for three days.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
41968
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy