Back to search
The question

Is it permissible for the husband to retract his oath after prohibiting his wife by saying, "You are unlawful to me," if she buys from a specific woman, and what is the expiation for that?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The ruling on swearing to make one's wife unlawful varies depending on the husband's intention: If he intended divorce, then it is a divorce that takes effect if the condition is met, and he can take her back if it was not the third divorce. If he intended zihar (a pronouncement making one's wife unlawful, akin to declaring her as one's mother's back), then it is zihar, and the expiation for zihar is obligatory before intercourse. If he intended an oath or did not intend anything specific, then it is an oath for which expiation for an oath is obligatory, and he can retract the oath and do good after expiating. The lawful oath is an oath by Allah the Almighty.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
194873
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy