Are the words or actions of the husband in the aforementioned situations considered a divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The mere intention to divorce does not constitute a divorce. Similarly, a divorce does not occur through words if the speaker is unsure if he uttered them, or if he cannot recall his intention at the time of extreme anger. This is because, for allusive divorce pronouncements (alfazh al-kinayah), the intention to divorce must accompany them for the divorce to take effect. Furthermore, the divorce of an angry person does not take effect if his anger was extreme.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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