Is it forbidden for a wife to allow her husband intimacy after the Sharia marriage contract but before the documented civil contract, if the civil contract is the only one recognized for proving marriage and the paternity of children in her country?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A man gains possession of a woman through a contract that fulfills all conditions and pillars. It is recommended to observe the prevailing custom of registering marriage contracts to safeguard rights and lineage, especially with the existence of laws that mandate it. Sharia did not stipulate that the contract must be conducted by a judge or a scholar; rather, an oral offer and acceptance in the presence of two witnesses are sufficient. The Companions did not write down dowries to expedite the payment of the dower. However, the need to write contracts emerged when people began to marry with deferred dowries.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/90479
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- 90479
- Imported
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