What is the ruling on a woman stopping childbirth without a legitimate Sharia reason, contenting herself with the children she already has, and must she continue to bear children until a certain age to avoid sin?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
There is no harm in a married couple agreeing not to have children, provided that it is not by a means that permanently prevents conception, and that the motive is not the fear of poverty.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/190183
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- 190183
- Imported
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